The Bounded Inverse Theorem

Bounded Inverse Theorem
Let \(X\) and \(Y\) be Banach spaces, and let \(T\colon X\to Y\) be a bounded linear bijection. Then \(T^{-1}\colon Y\to X\) is bounded. In particular, there exist constants \(A,B>0\) such that \(A\|x\|_X\le\|Tx\|_Y\le B\|x\|_X\) for every \(x\in X\).

Proof

The upper bound expresses boundedness of \(T\). For the lower bound, the Open Mapping Theorem gives continuity of \(T^{-1}\). Since \(T^{-1}\) is linear, it is bounded. Thus there exists \(C>0\) such that

$$ \|T^{-1}y\|_X\le C\|y\|_Y \qquad\text{for every }y\in Y. $$

Substituting \(y=Tx\) gives \(\|x\|_X\le C\|Tx\|_Y\). Dividing by \(C\) gives the lower bound with \(A=1/C\).

Example 1: A Finite-Dimensional Linear Map

If \(T\colon\mathbb{R}^n\to\mathbb{R}^m\) is linear and surjective, then \(m\le n\) by rank–nullity. When \(m=n\), surjectivity also gives injectivity, so \(T\) is bijective. Every linear map on a finite-dimensional domain is bounded, and every finite-dimensional normed space is complete. Thus the Bounded Inverse Theorem applies for any choice of norms on these spaces.


Application — Which Sequences Are Fourier Coefficients?

Theorem
The Fourier coefficient map \(\mathcal{F}\colon L^1(\mathbb{T})\to c_0(\mathbb{Z})\) is not surjective.

Proof

Suppose \(\mathcal{F}\) were surjective. By the uniqueness theorem for Fourier coefficients, if \(f\in L^1(\mathbb{T})\) and all its Fourier coefficients vanish, then \(f=0\) almost everywhere. Thus \(\mathcal{F}\) is injective as well. Under our assumption, it would therefore be a bounded linear bijection between the Banach spaces \(L^1(\mathbb{T})\) and \(c_0(\mathbb{Z})\).

The Bounded Inverse Theorem would then give a constant \(A>0\) such that

$$ A\|f\|_{L^1} \le\|\mathcal{F}f\|_\infty =\sup_{n\in\mathbb{Z}}|\widehat f(n)| \qquad\text{for every }f\in L^1(\mathbb{T}). $$

Test this inequality on the Dirichlet kernel \(D_N(x)=\sum_{k=-N}^{N}e^{ikx}\). Reading off its Fourier coefficients gives

$$ \widehat{D_N}(n)= \begin{cases} 1, & |n|\le N,\\ 0, & |n|>N. \end{cases} $$

Thus \(\|\mathcal{F}D_N\|_\infty=1\) for every \(N\). The proposed lower bound would imply

$$ A\|D_N\|_{L^1}\le 1 \qquad\text{for every }N. $$

But we already know that \(\|D_N\|_{L^1}\to\infty\). Since \(A\) is a fixed positive constant, the inequality fails for sufficiently large \(N\). This contradiction proves that some sequences in \(c_0(\mathbb{Z})\) are not Fourier coefficient sequences of integrable functions.


Example 2: Two Complete Norms on the Same Vector Space

Suppose both \((X,\|\cdot\|_1)\) and \((X,\|\cdot\|_2)\) are Banach spaces, and suppose there exists \(B>0\) such that \(\|x\|_2\le B\|x\|_1\) for every \(x\in X\). To obtain the inequality in the other direction, consider the identity map

$$ I\colon (X,\|\cdot\|_1)\to(X,\|\cdot\|_2), \qquad I(x)=x. $$

This map is a linear bijection. The assumed inequality says exactly that \(I\) is bounded. By the Bounded Inverse Theorem, \(I^{-1}\) is also bounded, so there exists \(C>0\) such that \(\|x\|_1\le C\|x\|_2\) for every \(x\in X\). Taking \(A=1/C\) gives

$$ A\|x\|_1\le\|x\|_2\le B\|x\|_1 \qquad\text{for every }x\in X. $$

Hence the two norms are equivalent.


References

  • SFSU Fourier Analysis by Professor Chun-Kit Lai
  • Fourier Analysis: An Introduction by Elias M.Stein and Rami Shakarchi