In this specific note, we will discuss the second consequences the Inner Product: Orthogonality. First define

Definition (Orthogonal)
We say that two vectors \(\mathbf{u},\mathbf{v}\in V\) are orthogonal if $$ \begin{align*} \langle \mathbf{u},\mathbf{v}\rangle = 0. \end{align*} $$

This gives rise to the following theorem:

Theorem (Pythagorean theorem)
Suppose that \(u\) and \(v\) are orthogonal. Then \[ \|u+v\|^2 = \|u\|^2 + \|v\|^2. \]

Proof. By the definition of the induced norm,

$$ \begin{align*} \|u+v\|^2 &= \langle u+v,u+v\rangle \\ &= \langle u,u\rangle + \langle u,v\rangle + \langle v,u\rangle + \langle v,v\rangle \\ &= \|u\|^2 + \|v\|^2. \end{align*} $$

The two cross terms vanish because \(\langle u,v\rangle=0\) and \(\langle v,u\rangle=\overline{\langle u,v\rangle}=0\).


Now suppose we’re in \(\mathbb{R}^2\) and we want to find the length of the vector \(\alpha v\). In other words, the projection of \(w\) onto \(v\) in

Then we can note that \(w - \alpha v\) is actually orthogonal to \(\alpha v\). Hence we obtain

$$ \begin{align*} \langle w - \alpha v, v\rangle &= 0 \\ \langle w,v \rangle - \alpha \langle v, v\rangle &= 0 \\ \alpha &= \frac{\langle w,v \rangle}{\langle v, v\rangle} \end{align*} $$

This leads to the following definition

Definition (Projection)
Let \(w, v \in V\). The orthogonal projection of \(w\) onto \(v\) is the vector \[ \operatorname{proj}_v w = \Pi_{v}(w) = \frac{\langle w,v \rangle}{\|v\|^2}v \]

which then leads to an important theorem for any inner product space:

Theorem (Cauchy–Schwarz inequality)
Let \(V\) be an inner product space. Then for any \(v,w\in V\), \[ |\langle v,w \rangle|\leq \|v\|\|w\|. \] Equality holds if and only if \(v\) and \(w\) are linearly dependent (parallel to each other).

Proof. The inequality holds immediately if \(v=0\). Assume that \(v\neq 0\). Define

$$ \begin{align*} \alpha = \frac{\langle w,v\rangle}{\|v\|^2} \end{align*} $$

Recall in the figure above which we’ll draw again here

So \(\alpha v = \frac{\langle w,v\rangle}{\|v\|^2}v\) is the projection of \(w\) onto \(v\). Now observe what happens if we remove that projection component from \(w\)

$$ \begin{align*} \left\langle w-\alpha v, v\right\rangle &= \langle w,v\rangle - \left\langle \alpha v,v\right\rangle \\ &= \langle w,v\rangle - \alpha \langle v,v\rangle \\ &= \langle w,v\rangle - \frac{\langle w,v\rangle}{\|v\|^2}\|v\|^2 \\ &= \langle w,v\rangle-\langle w,v\rangle \\ &= 0. \end{align*} $$

Note that \(w - \alpha v\) is also orthogonal to \(\alpha v\) since

$$ \begin{align*} \langle w-\alpha v,\alpha v\rangle &=\overline{\alpha}\,\langle w-\alpha v,v\rangle\\ &=\overline{\alpha}\bigl(\langle w,v\rangle-\alpha\langle v,v\rangle\bigr)\\ &=\overline{\alpha}\left(\langle w,v\rangle- \frac{\langle w,v\rangle}{\|v\|^2}\|v\|^2\right)\\ &=0. \end{align*} $$

Since orthogonality is defined by having an inner product equal to zero, this establishes that \(w - \alpha v\) and \(\alpha v\) are orthogonal in any inner product space even when we can’t draw the vectors Re-write the vector \(w\) to be

$$ \begin{align*} w= w - \alpha v + \alpha v \end{align*} $$

Since \(w - \alpha v\) and \(\alpha v\) orthogonal, then by the Pythagorean theorem,

$$ \begin{align*} \|w\|^2 &=\|w-\alpha v\|^2+\|\alpha v\|^2\\ &=\|w-\alpha v\|^2+|\alpha|^2\|v\|^2\\ &=\|w-\alpha v\|^2+ \frac{|\langle w,v\rangle|^2}{\|v\|^2}\\ &\ge \frac{|\langle w,v\rangle|^2}{\|v\|^2}. \end{align*} $$

Multiplying by \(\|v\|^2\) and taking square roots gives

$$ \begin{align*} |\langle w,v\rangle|^2 &\leq \|w\|^2\|v\|^2\\ |\langle w,v\rangle| &\leq \|w\|\|v\|. \end{align*} $$

For \(v\neq 0\), equality holds exactly when

$$ \begin{align*} \|w-\alpha v\|^2=0, \end{align*} $$

or equivalently, \(w=\alpha v\). Thus

$$ \begin{align*} w=\frac{\langle w,v\rangle}{\|v\|^2}v. \end{align*} $$

Hence equality holds precisely when \(w\) and \(v\) are linearly dependent. When \(v=0\), equality also holds and the vectors are linearly dependent. \(\square\)


With the Cauchy–Schwarz inequality, we can define the angle between two nonzero vectors \(u,v\) in a real inner product space \(V\) by

$$ \cos\theta:=\frac{\langle u,v\rangle}{\|u\|\|v\|}, \qquad \theta\in[0,\pi]. $$

Cauchy–Schwarz ensures that this ratio lies in \([-1,1]\). Moreover, on \(\mathbb{R}^n\), the Cauchy–Schwarz inequality becomes

$$ \left|\sum_{i=1}^{n}u_i v_i\right| \leq \left(\sum_{i=1}^{n}u_i^2\right)^{1/2} \left(\sum_{i=1}^{n}v_i^2\right)^{1/2}. $$

and on \(C[a,b]\), it becomes

$$ \left|\int_a^b f(x)\overline{g(x)}\,dx\right| \leq \left(\int_a^b |f(x)|^2\,dx\right)^{1/2} \left(\int_a^b |g(x)|^2\,dx\right)^{1/2}. $$

For real-valued functions, \(\overline{g(x)}=g(x)\).


Example

Example. On \(C_{\mathrm{per}}[0,2\pi]\), with inner product

$$ \langle f,g\rangle=\int_0^{2\pi}f(x)\overline{g(x)}\,dx, $$

If define the family \(f_n(x)=e^{inx}\), indexed by integers. Then \(f_n\) and \(f_m\) are two members of that family, and they’re orthogonal when \(n \neq m\). Precisely,

$$ \langle f_n,f_m\rangle =\int_0^{2\pi}e^{i(n-m)x}\,dx =0 \qquad (n\neq m). $$

References

  • SFSU Fourier Analysis by Professor Chun-Kit Lai
  • Fourier Analysis: An Introduction by Elias M.Stein and Rami Shakarchi