Proof
Suppose for the sake of contradiction that it wasn’t uniformly continuous on $I$. Then by negating the definition of uniform continuity, there exists an \(\epsilon_0 > 0\) such that for all \(\delta > 0\), there exists points \(x,y \in I\) with \(|x - y| < \delta\) and \(|f(x) - f(y)| \geq \epsilon_0\).
Now choose \(\delta_n = \frac{1}{n}\). Then, for each \(n \in \mathbb{N}\), there exists points \(x_n, y_n \in I\) such that
and
Since \(I\) is closed and bounded, then by Bolzano-Weirestrass, both \(\{x_n\}\) and \(\{y_n\}\) have convergent subsequences \(x_{n_k} \rightarrow x\) and \(y_{n_k} \rightarrow y\) where \(x, y \in I\). But recall that \(f\) is continuous, then by the Sequential Characterization of Continuity, we know that
Observe that as \(k \rightarrow \infty\), then \(\frac{1}{n_k}\) also approaches \(0\) so equation 1 becomes
Thus, \(\lim\limits_{k \to \infty} |x_{n_k} - y_{n_k}| = 0\). But since \(x_{n_k} - y_{n_k} \rightarrow 0\), then we must have that \(x = y\). However this means by (3), that
so as \(k \to \infty\)
This is a contradiction since by (2) we know that for all \(k\)
Hence, \(f\) must be uniformly continuous on \(I\). \(\ \blacksquare\)
References
- Introduction to Analysis, An, 4th edition by William Wade
- Lecture Notes by Professor Chun Kit Lai