Theorem
There are infinitely many prime numbers.

Proof

Suppose for the sake of contradiction that there are finitely many primes \(p_1,p_2,...,p_k\). Consider

$$ \begin{align} M = p_1p_2...p_k + 1. \end{align} $$

Clearly \(M > p_i\) for all \(i = 1,2,\ldots,k\). Now observe that none of these primes \(p_1, p_2,...,p_k\) can divide \(M\). This is because if any of these primes did, say it was \(p_i\), then

$$ \begin{align} p_i \mid M = p_1p_2...p_k + 1. \end{align} $$

But we know that \(p_i\) also divides the product \(p_1p_2...p_k\). Therefore, since \(p_i \mid M\) and \(p_i | p_1p_2...p_k\), then

$$ \begin{align} p_i \mid M - p_1p_2...p_k = 1. \end{align} $$

which is impossible since \(p_i > 1\) for all \(i = 1,2,\ldots,k\). Hence, none of the primes \(p_1,p_2,\ldots,p_k\) can divide \(M\). By the Fundamental Theorem of Arithmetic, \(M\) must either be prime or a product of primes. Therefore, there must be another prime not in the list dividing \(M\) or \(M\) itself is a prime not in the list. This is a contradiction and so we can conclude that there are infinitely many primes. \(\ \blacksquare\)


References

  • Number Theory by George E. Andrews

</div> Proof