Example
Take any prime \(p\), then \(\mu(p) = -1\). Take any \(n\) such that it has two prime factors that are equal, then \(\mu(n) = 0\).
\(\mu(p)\) is Multiplicative
Proof
We have three cases:
Case 1: Either \(m = 1\) or \(n = 1\). Suppose without the loss of generality that \(n = 1\). Then, the left hand side is
while the right hand side is
Thus, \(\mu(mn) = \mu(m)\mu(n)\).
Case 2: Suppose that either \(n\) or \(m\) has at least one prime factor with multiplicity greater than 1. Suppose without the loss of generality that \(m\) has one prime factor \(p^{\alpha}\) where \(\alpha \geq 2\). This implies that \(\mu(m) = 0\) by definition. Thus,
Furthermore, note that \(mn\) has the same prime factor \(p\) where \(\alpha > 0\). This implies that \(\mu(mn) = 0\).
Thus, \(\mu(mn) = \mu(m)\mu(n)\).
Case 3: Suppose that both \(n\) and \(m\) consists of distinct prime factors. Let the prime factorization of \(m\) be \(m = p_1p_2 \ldots p_k\) and let \(n\)’s prime factorization be \(n = q_1 \ldots q_l\). Then
Hence \(\mu(m)\mu(n) = (-1)^k(-1)^l = (-1)^{k+1}\). Moreover, we know that \(\gcd(n,m) = 1\). This implies that
Thus, \(mn\) has distinct prime factors and \(\mu(mn) = (-1)^{k+1}\). Therefore, \(\mu(mn) = \mu(m)\mu(n)\) as desired. \(\blacksquare\)
References
- Math310 Class Notes by Matthias Beck